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Chapter14 Psychological Disorders

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Chapter14 Psychological Disorders

True / False

1. Simply imaging something pleasant is not sufficient to   stimulate the release of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens; the event must   actually be experienced.​

a. 

True

b. 

False

2. Addictive drugs strongly activate the nucleus accumbens   by releasing dopamine or norepinephrine there.

a. 

True

b. 

False

3. After a long period of abstinence, exposure to cues   associated with the substance are very unlikely to trigger a renewed   craving.​

a. 

True

b. 

False

4. Symptoms of marijuana withdrawal include anxiety,   sweating, vomiting, and diarrhea.

a. 

True

b. 

False

5. Studies of the genetics of addiction have implicated the   gene that controls COMT, an enzyme that breaks down norepinephrine.​

a. 

True

b. 

False

6. Medications like Antabuse combat alcohol abuse by   blocking opiate receptors and thereby decrease the pleasure from alcohol.​

a. 

True

b. 

False

7. Autism spectrum disorder encompasses both autism and   what used to be called Asperger’s syndrome.​

a. 

True

b. 

False

8. Many fad treatments for autism spectrum disorders make   the parents feel good that they are trying something, but otherwise, they are   a waste of time and money.​

a. 

True

b. 

False

9. Less than 5% of mothers who have children with autism   have antibodies that attack certain brain proteins.​

a. 

True

b. 

False

10. Most depressed people have decreased activity in the   left and increased activity in the right prefrontal cortex.

a. 

True

b. 

False

11. The first successful treatment for bipolar disorder,   and still the most common one, is lithium salts.

a. 

True

b. 

False

12. Antidepressant drugs have effects at the synapse within   hours, but may take weeks to change behavior.

a. 

True

b. 

False

13. Exposure to bright lights is one effective treatment for   SAD.

a. 

True

b. 

False

14. The ventricles are larger than normal in people with   schizophrenia.

a. 

True

b. 

False

15. Atypical antipsychotics are effective in treating only   the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. 

a. 

True

b. 

False

Multiple Choice

16. A drug that mimics or increases the effects of a   neurotransmitter is called a(n) ____.​

a. 

​agonist

b. 

​antagonist

c. 

​stimulant

d. 

​protagonist

17. A drug that blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter is   called a(n) ____.​

a. 

​agonist

b. 

​antagonist

c. 

​depressant

d. 

​protagonist

18. A drug that blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter is   a(n) ____; a drug that mimics or increases the effects is a(n) ____.​

a. 

​neuromodulator; synergist

b. 

​agonist; antagonist

c. 

​depressant;     stimulant

d. 

​antagonist; agonist

19. Which effect would be considered to be antagonistic?​

a. 

​blocking the     synthesis of neurotransmitters

b. 

​stimulating the     release of neurotransmitters

c. 

​blocking the     reuptake of neurotransmitters

d. 

​interfering with     the breakdown of neurotransmitters

20. ​Which effect would be considered to be agonistic?

a. 

​blocking the     synthesis of neurotransmitters

b. 

​stimulating the     release of neurotransmitters

c. 

​blocking the     postsynaptic receptors

d. 

​mimicking enzymes     that breakdown neurotransmitters

21. ​To say that a drug has an affinity for a particular   type of receptor is to imply that the drug ____.

a. 

​breaks down     neurotransmitter chemicals at that receptor site

b. 

​will always excite     the postsynaptic receptor

c. 

​will always inhibit     the postsynaptic receptor

d. 

​binds to that     receptor

22. ​With respect to drug effects, “efficacy”   means the tendency of a drug to ____.

a. 

​have inhibitory     effects

b. 

​have excitatory     effects

c. 

​attach to a     receptor

d. 

​activate a receptor

23. ​The brain area most often linked to drug addiction is   the ____.

a. 

​nucleus accumbens

b. 

​whole limbic system

c. 

​frontal lobes

d. 

​brain stem

24. ​Which neurotransmitter has been repeatedly connected   with addictive drugs?

a. 

​epinephrine

b. 

​acetylcholine

c. 

​serotonin

d. 

​dopamine

25. ​An insistent search for the substance or activity to   which the individual is addicted is called ____.

a. 

​tolerance

b. 

​craving

c. 

​withdrawal

d. 

abstinence​

26. ​As an addiction develops, many of its effects,   especially the enjoyable effects, decrease, a phenomenon known as____.

a. 

​tolerance

b. 

craving

c. 

withdrawal

d. 

​abstinence

27. As the body comes to expect the drug under certain   circumstances, it reacts strongly when the drug is absent, a reaction known   as ____.​

a. 

​tolerance

b. 

​craving

c. 

​withdrawal

d. 

​abstinence

28. Attempts to identify individual genes associated with addiction   have found ____.​

a. 

​many genes, each     with a small effect

b. 

​a small number of     genes with limited cumulative effects

c. 

​many genes, each     with a substantial effect

d. 

​a small number of     genes with substantial cumulative effects

29. A key gene in addiction controls COMT, an enzyme that   breaks down ____ after its release.​

a. 

​serotonin

b. 

​norepinephrine

c. 

​dopamine

d. 

​GABA

30. People with Type II (Type B) alcoholism ____.​

a. 

​have rapid onset     alcoholism

b. 

​have few symptoms     prior to middle age

c. 

​are typically     female

d. 

​experience few     problems as a result of their alcoholism

31. Studies of individuals at high risk of alcoholism show   that ____.​

a. 

​sons of alcoholics     show more than average intoxication after drinking a moderate amount     of alcohol

b. 

​daughters of     alcoholics show less than average intoxication after drinking a moderate     amount of alcohol

c. 

​alcohol     paradoxically increases stress for sons of alcoholics rather than     decreasing it

d. 

​alcohol decreases     stress more for sons of alcoholics than it does for others

32. Which drug is used in the treatment of opiate addiction   and has the advantage of producing a long-lasting effect so that the person   visits a clinic three times a week instead of daily?​

a. 

​Antabuse

b. 

​naloxone

c. 

​LAAM

d. 

​methodone

33. A common drug to treat alcoholism that produces illness   after consuming alcohol is ____.​

a. 

​Antabuse

b. 

​naloxone

c. 

​LAAM

d. 

​methodone

34. Which drug is used in the treatment of alcoholism to   block opiate receptors and thus reduce the pleasure from alcohol?​

a. 

​Antabuse

b. 

​naloxone

c. 

​LAAM

d. 

​methodone

35. Which drug is viewed as a less potentially harmful   substitute for heroin and is taken orally every day?​

a. 

​Antabuse

b. 

​naloxone

c. 

​LAAMmethodone

d. 

36. Worldwide, the median incidence estimate for autism   spectrum disorders is about one in ____. ​

a. 

​60

b. 

​160

c. 

​260

d. 

​600

37. Several studies on the role of genetics in autism have   focused on ____ —enzymes that regulate the repair and replication of DNA and   the production of certain types of RNA​

a. 

​topoisomerases

b. 

​proteases

c. 

​lipases

d. 

​hydrolases

38. Women who take folic acid pills during pregnancy have   about ____ the probability of having a child with autism as compared to other   women.​

a. 

​one-tenth

b. 

​half

c. 

​twice

d. 

​ten times

39. About 12% of the mothers of children who have autism   spectrum disorders have ____.​

a. 

​a family history of     autism spectrum disorders

b. 

​antibodies that     attack certain brain proteins

c. 

​extremely low     levels of folic acid

d. 

​a history of heavy     alcohol use during pregnancy

40. Studies of the genetics of autism spectrum disorders   indicate that ____.​

a. 

​many cases result     from new mutations or microdeletions in any of a number of genes

b. 

​a small number of     genes appear to be involved in autism spectrum disorders

c. 

​most mutations and     deletions implicated in autism spectrum disorders are inherited from     mothers

d. 

​very young maternal     age and very young paternal age independently increase the risk of autism     spectrum disorders

41. The primary symptoms of autism spectrum disorders   include ____.​

a. 

​deficits in social     exchanges

b. 

​severe intellectual     disabilities

c. 

​excessive,     unwavering eye contact

d. 

​extremely powerful     memory skills

42. Which autism treatment is most widely used?​

a. 

​the use of first     generation antipsychotics

b. 

​increase action     potential velocity

c. 

​dietary     modifications such as elimination of sugar or food dyes

d. 

​the use of     chelation to remove heavy metals from the blood

43. As compared to non-depressed people, depressed   individuals ____.​

a. 

​have greater     unpleasant events

b. 

​react worse to     unpleasant events

c. 

​have fewer pleasant     experiences

d. 

​react more to     pleasant experiences

44. What can be said about treatment for autism spectrum   disorders?​

a. 

​While drugs like     risperidone can be used to reduce stereotyped behaviors, they have a risk     of dangerous side-effects.

b. 

​The use of     stimulant drugs may increase social behavior and communication.

c. 

​New treatments,     including chelation, appear to have great promise.

d. 

​Use of the high     fat, ketogenic diet used for some children with intractable epilepsy,     appears helpful.

45. People with late-onset depression are more likely than   other people to have relatives with which type of disorder?

a. 

​diabetes

b. 

​circulatory     problems

c. 

​mental retardation

d. 

skin diseases

46. Which is true when considering the role of genetics in   depression?​

a. 

​Late-onset     depression has higher heritability than early-onset depression.

b. 

​Depression in males     runs in families, depression in females does not.

c. 

​Adopted children     who become depressed are more likely to have depressed biological relatives     than depressed adoptive relatives.

d. 

​Adopted children     who become depressed are more likely to have depressed adoptive relatives     than depressed biological relatives.

47. On average, those with the short form of the ____   transporter gene and a history of stressful experiences reported more than   average symptoms of depression. ​

a. 

​acetylcholine

b. 

​dopamine

c. 

​serotonin 

d. 

​calcium

48. Most depressed people show ____ activity in the ____   prefrontal cortex.​

a. 

​increased; left

b. 

​decreased; left

c. 

​decreased; right

d. 

​increased; right     and left

49. Which symptoms are the most likely side effects of   tricyclic antidepressants?​

a. 

​increased reaction     to eating cheese

b. 

​nausea and     headaches

c. 

​drowsiness and dry     mouth

d. 

​cramping and     diarrhea

50. Which category of antidepressant drugs operates by   blocking the transporter proteins that reabsorb serotonin, dopamine, and   norepinephrine into the presynaptic neuron after their release?​

a. 

​tricyclics

b. 

​MAOIs

c. 

​selective serotonin     reuptake inhibitors

d. 

​atypical     antidepressants

51. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors operate   similarly to ____.​

a. 

​tricyclics

b. 

​MAOIs

c. 

​Antabuse

d. 

​L-Dopa

52. Which category of antidepressant drugs operates by   blocking the enzyme that metabolizes catecholamines and serotonin into   inactive forms?​

a. 

​tricyclics

b. 

​MAOIs

c. 

​selective serotonin     reuptake inhibitors

d. 

​atypical     antidepressants

53. In contrast to tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake   inhibitors (SSRIs) ____.​

a. 

​block reuptake of     both catecholamines and serotonin

b. 

​increase action     potential velocity

c. 

​block the reuptake     of only serotonin

d. 

​act on the left     hemisphere while tricyclics act on the right

54. One potentially dangerous side effect of St. John’s   wort is that it ____.​

a. 

​increases the     effectiveness of other medications the person may be taking

b. 

​decreases the     effectiveness of other medications the person may be taking

c. 

​prevents the     reuptake of serotonin

d. 

​raises blood     pressure after the person eats tyramine-rich food

55. ____ is a treatment for depression that electrically   induces a seizure.​

a. 

​Electromagnetic     therapy

b. 

​Repetitive     transcranial magnetic stimulation

c. 

​Electroconvulsive     shock therapy 

d. 

​Transcranial magnetic     stimulation

56. The use of electroconvulsive shock declined in the   1950s because ____.​

a. 

​legal concerns     arose with its use as a therapy

b. 

​a new theory of     depression called the treatment into question

c. 

​antidepressant     drugs became available

d. 

​a federal report     concluded that it was almost never effective

57. Electroconvulsive therapy is sometimes recommended for   patients with strong suicidal tendencies because it ____.​

a. 

​produces its     benefits faster

b. 

​does not impair     memory

c. 

​produces permanent,     not temporary, relief

d. 

​is based on a     theory, not just trial and error discoveries

58. The most common side effect of electroconvulsive shock   therapy is ____.​

a. 

​dry mouth and     blurred vision

b. 

​damage to the     frontal lobes

c. 

​memory loss

d. 

​high probability of     broken bones during the treatment

59. Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation is similar   to ECT in that ____.​

a. 

​both deal with     magnetic stimulation

b. 

​both increase the     frequency of action potentials

c. 

​both are effective     in alleviating depression and no one knows why

d. 

​neither requires     patient consent

60. In certain cases, it is possible to relieve depression   by changing a person’s ____.​

a. 

​sleeping schedule

b. 

​eating schedule

c. 

​exercise schedule

d. 

​self-grooming     habits

61. Which of the following characterizes the total brain   activity, as measured by the rate of glucose metabolism, in those suffering   from mood disorders?​

a. 

​high in both mania     and depression

b. 

​low in both mania     and depression

c. 

​low in mania and     high in depression

d. 

​high in mania and     low in depression

62. Bipolar I disorder and bipolar II disorder differ with   regard to ____.​

a. 

​how many relatives     also have the condition

b. 

​how rapidly the     cycles occur

c. 

​whether they     include full-blown manic phases

d. 

​whether they     develop suddenly at an early age or gradually at a later age

63. Lithium is most commonly prescribed for which   disorder?​

a. 

​seasonal affective     disorder

b. 

​endogenous     depression

c. 

​reactive depression

d. 

​bipolar disorder

64. Physicians must carefully monitor the dose of lithium   they give to bipolar patients because ____.​

a. 

​people develop a     tolerance to the drug and must gradually increase their dosage

b. 

​people develop a     sensitivity to the drug and must gradually decrease their dosage

c. 

​the amount of drug     needed to achieve a good effect varies from one time of year to another

d. 

​the most beneficial     dosage is just less than the dosage that is toxic

65. What do the drugs valproate and carbamazepine share in   common with lithium?​

a. 

​They are used to     treat schizophrenia.

b. 

​They block the     synthesis of arachidonic acid.

c. 

​They inhibit GABA.

d. 

​They are 100%     effective in treating bipolar disorder.

66. Similar to depressed patients, bipolar patients may   benefit from a change in their ____.​

a. 

​work schedule

b. 

​roommates

c. 

​sleep schedule

d. 

​exercise routine

67. People suffering from seasonal affective disorder are   most likely become depressed ____.​

a. 

​after the     holidays 

b. 

​in the fall

c. 

​in the winter

d. 

​at solstices

68. Where is seasonal affective disorder most common?​

a. 

​in large cities

b. 

​in small towns and     rural areas

c. 

​in tropical areas

d. 

​near the poles

69. What is one of the best treatments for seasonal   affective disorder?​

a. 

​bright light

b. 

​electroconvulsive     shock therapy

c. 

​adrenal hormones

d. 

​dietary changes

70. Which disorder is characterized by a deteriorating   ability to function in everyday life and some combination of hallucinations,   delusions, disorganized speech, and grossly disorganized behavior?

a. 

​bipolar disorder

b. 

​hypomania

c. 

​multiple     personality

d. 

​schizophrenia

71. Which behavior is most suggestive of schizophrenia?​

a. 

​alternation between     one personality and another

b. 

​outbursts of unprovoked     violent behavior toward strangers

c. 

​deterioration of     daily functioning with disorganized speech and behavior

d. 

​episodes of being     unable to remember certain events of one’s past

72. ____ was originally called dementia praecox.​

a. 

​Bipolar disorder

b. 

​Schizophrenia

c. 

​Dissociative     identity disorder

d. 

​Huntington’s     disease

73. Dissociative identity disorder was previously known as   ____.​

a. 

​multiple     personality disorder

b. 

​schizophrenia

c. 

​borderline     personality disorder

d. 

​bipolar disorder

74. An example of a “negative symptom” of   schizophrenia is ____.​

a. 

​hallucinations

b. 

​poor emotional     expression

c. 

​delusions

d. 

​thought disorder

75. A schizophrenic patient whose main symptoms are lack of   emotional expression, lack of social interaction, and lack of speech is   suffering from ____.​

a. 

​positive symptoms

b. 

​negative symptoms

c. 

​thought disorders

d. 

​delusions

76. One of the main problems with schizophrenia is ____   that result from abnormal interactions between the cortex and the thalamus   and cerebellum.​

a. 

​speech problem

b. 

​absent signs of     emotion

c. 

​disordered thoughts

d. 

​delusions

77. What is the difference between positive and negative   schizophrenic symptoms?​

a. 

​beneficial     behaviors versus harmful behaviors

b. 

​behaviors that are     present versus behaviors that are absent

c. 

​behaviors that are     related to abnormal brain functioning versus those that are not

d. 

​behaviors shown by     one personality versus behaviors shown by another

78. Hallucinations, delusions, and grossly disorganized   behavior are classified as which kind of symptoms?​

a. 

​positive symptoms

b. 

​neutral symptoms

c. 

​negative symptoms

d. 

​ambiguous symptoms

79. A delusion is a(n) ____.​

a. 

​sensory experience     that does not correspond to reality

b. 

​inability to     understand abstract concepts

c. 

​unfounded belief

d. 

​loss of memory for     part of one’s past

80. What Bleuler meant by schizophrenia was a split between   ____ and ____ aspects of experience. ​

a. 

​emotional; behavioral

b. 

​emotional;     realistic

c. 

​intellectual;     behavioral

d. 

​emotional;     intellectual

81. Disorganized speech and grossly disorganized behavior   represent the ____ in schizophrenia.​

a. 

​a wide range of     possible positive symptoms 

b. 

​a concrete set of     defining positive symptoms

c. 

​a wide range of     possible negative symptoms

d. 

​a concrete set of     defining negative symptoms

82. What is the most common cognitive symptom of   schizophrenia?​

a. 

​obsessive     concentration on a single idea

b. 

​alternating between     one personality and another

c. 

​excessive attention     to detail when discussing a topic

d. 

​impaired     understanding of abstract concepts

83. A first diagnosis of schizophrenia is usually made for   a male in which age range?​

a. 

​preteens

b. 

​20s

c. 

​30s or 40s

d. 

​50s or beyond

84. The concordance rate of schizophrenia among twins is   ____.​

a. 

​higher in dizygotic     than monozygotic twins

b. 

​higher in     monozygotic than dizygotic twins

c. 

​equally high in     monozygotic and dizygotic twins

d. 

​very difficult to     determine

85. The concordance rate for schizophrenia is around ____   percent for monozygotic twins.​

a. 

​0

b. 

​10

c. 

​50

d. 

​90

86. When an adopted child develops schizophrenia, the   disease is significantly more probable among the ____.​

a. 

​adopting relatives     than the biological relatives

b. 

​biological     relatives than the adopting relatives

c. 

​siblings than the     parents

d. 

​fathers than the     mothers

87. One important factor to consider when making judgments   about the relative influence of genetics on schizophrenia is the ____.​

a. 

​role of evolution

b. 

​age of the mother

c. 

​size of school they     attend

d. 

​prenatal     environment

88. Genetic studies of schizophrenia have found that ____.​

a. 

​there are probably     several possible genes that increase a person’s risk for schizophrenia

b. 

​a single gene on     the X chromosome accounts for most cases of schizophrenia

c. 

​schizophrenia has     about the same heritability as Huntington’s disease

d. 

​dizygotic twins are     more concordant for schizophrenia than monozygotic twins

89. One gene of interest in schizophrenia is DISC1. This   gene ____.​

a. 

​controls     differentiation and migration of neurons in brain development

b. 

​alters the     metabolism of glucose, especially in the brain

c. 

​controls the     breakdown of norepinephrine

d. 

​alters the     responsiveness of the nucleus accumbens

90. Researchers have had trouble replicating studies that   found a particular gene linked to schizophrenia. According to one recent   hypothesis, ____.​

a. 

​genes in fact have     nothing to do with schizophrenia

b. 

​the same genes     responsible for schizophrenia also produce Huntington’s disease

c. 

​spontaneous     mutations in any of hundreds of genes can cause schizophrenia

d. 

​most genetic researchers     fail to examine the X and Y chromosomes

91. Which of the following increases the probability that   someone will develop schizophrenia?​

a. 

​having an older     than average father

b. 

​having at least one     older brother

c. 

​being the only     child in the family

d. 

​having a mother who     is older than the father

92. What is one factor in prenatal development that has   been found to be related to increased incidences of schizophrenia later in   life?​

a. 

​excess sex hormones     during the third trimester

b. 

​prenatal exposure     to Toxoplasma gondii

c. 

​lack of exercise by     the mother early in pregnancy

d. 

​episodes of     maternal depression

93. Which factor is sometimes taken as evidence that   schizophrenia might be caused by a virus?​

a. 

​the age at which     symptoms appear

b. 

​the high     concordance between paternal half-siblings

c. 

​the season-of-birth     effect

d. 

​the relationship     between schizophrenia and stressful experiences

94. Brain differences common to schizophrenia include   ____.​

a. 

​larger than normal     cerebral ventricles

b. 

​a proliferation of     glial cells

c. 

​loss of axons     between the substantia nigra and the basal ganglia

d. 

​a heavier forebrain

95. The planum temporale is slightly ____ in the ____   temporal lobe of schizophrenics as compared to most other people.​

a. 

​deformed; left

b. 

​larger; left

c. 

​larger; right

d. 

​smaller; right

96. The areas with the most consistent signs of abnormality   in schizophrenics include the ____.​

a. 

​dorsolateral     prefrontal cortex

b. 

​medulla

c. 

​occipital lobes

d. 

​parietal lobes

97. The problems that schizophrenics have with memory and   attention are most likely related to an increased tendency of having brain   damage in the ____.​

a. 

​cerebellum tentio      

b. 

​prefrontal cortex

c. 

​occipital cortex

d. 

​medulla

98. ​People with schizophrenia have lower than normal   overall activity in the ____.

a. 

​hypothalamus

b. 

​thalamus

c. 

​left hemisphere

d. 

​right hemisphere

99. Research suggests that the brain abnormalities of   schizophrenics develop ____.​

a. 

​early and     progressively get worse

b. 

​early and then     remain fairly steady

c. 

​late in life and     progressively get worse

d. 

​late in life and     remain fairly steady

100. Prior to the 1950s, few schizophrenic patients who   entered a mental hospital ever left. The discovery most responsible for   alleviating that situation was the discovery of ____.​

a. 

​chlorpromazine

b. 

​the prefrontal     lobotomy

c. 

​electroconvulsive     therapy

d. 

​MAOIs

101. Another term for antipsychotic drugs is ____.​

a. 

​benzodiazepines

b. 

​neuroleptics

c. 

​tricyclics

d. 

​stimulants

102. The two chemical families to which most antipsychotic   drugs belong are ____.​

a. 

​phenothiazines and     butyrophenones

b. 

​tricyclics and     MAOIs

c. 

​nitrates and     glucocorticoids

d. 

​benzodiazepines and     antihistamines

103. Which of the following is an effect of most   antipsychotic drugs?​

a. 

​increased release     of acetylcholine

b. 

​decreased reuptake     of serotonin

c. 

​increased synthesis     of norepinephrine

d. 

​blockage of     dopamine receptors

104. The doses of various drugs that are typically   prescribed for schizophrenia are closely related to the strength of what   effect?​

a. 

​elevated alpha     waves on an EEG

b. 

​blockage of     dopamine receptors

c. 

​delays in the onset     of REM sleep

d. 

​increases in the     rate of dopamine synthesis

105. Repeated use of large doses of amphetamine or cocaine   can lead to a behavioral condition similar to ____.​

a. 

​schizophrenia

b. 

​bipolar disorder

c. 

​attention deficit     disorder

d. 

​depression

106. An individual shows symptoms resembling schizophrenia,   especially the positive symptoms, but is not schizophrenic. Which of the   following disorders is most likely?​

a. 

​seasonal affective     disorder

b. 

​bipolar disorder

c. 

​substance-induced     psychotic disorder

d. 

​Korsakoff’s     syndrome

107. An alternative to the dopamine hypothesis of   schizophrenia is the proposal that schizophrenia may be due to a deficiency   of activity of ____ synapses.​

a. 

​serotonin

b. 

​glutamate

c. 

​substance P

d. 

​acetylcholine

108. Phencyclidine (PCP), which can produce psychotic   symptoms resembling schizophrenia, has which effect?​

a. 

​It inhibits the     NMDA glutamate receptors.

b. 

​It interferes with     dopamine release.

c. 

​It prolongs activity     at serotonin synapses.

d. 

​It directly     stimulates acetylcholine receptors.

109. The amino acid, glycine, provides a possible   co-treatment for schizophrenia because it ____.​

a. 

​can be chemically     converted into dopamine

b. 

​increases the     effectiveness of glutamate

c. 

​decreases the     effectiveness of glutamate

d. 

​increases the     growth and division of glia cells

110. For schizophrenics, atypical antipsychotics are more   effective than typical antipsychotics in ____.​

a. 

​reducing positive     symptoms

b. 

​reducing negative     symptoms

c. 

​increasing negative     symptoms

d. 

​blocking glutamate     receptors

111. A serious side effect that develops in some people   after prolonged use of neuroleptic drugs is ____.​

a. 

​tardive dyskinesia

b. 

​attention deficit     disorder

c. 

​saccadic eye     movements

d. 

​seasonal affective     disorder

112. The symptoms of tardive dyskinesia are ____.​

a. 

​anterograde and     retrograde amnesia

b. 

​tremors and other     involuntary movements

c. 

​outbursts of     unprovoked violent behavior

d. 

​attacks of anxiety     that prevent active behavior

113. What happens when schizophrenics stop taking   neuroleptic drugs?​

a. 

​Auditory     hallucinations dissipate slowly.

b. 

​Schizophrenic     symptoms return immediately and with more intensity.

c. 

​Tardive dyskinesia     may continue.

d. 

​Memory problems     become more apparent.

114. Atypical antipsychotic drugs alleviate schizophrenia   with fewer side effects than other drugs because they ____.​

a. 

​stimulate dopamine     synapses instead of blocking them

b. 

​act at     acetylcholine synapses instead of dopamine synapses

c. 

​have a greater effect     on dopamine type D2 receptors

d. 

​more strongly     antagonize serotonin type 5-HT2 receptors

115. All things considered, the atypical antipsychotics   ____.​

a. 

​are far more     cost-effective than the older drugs

b. 

​do not improve     overall quality of life more than older drugs

c. 

​are preferable     because they have, at most, only mild side-effects

d. 

​have a much higher     risk of movement disorders

116. Which statement about the long-term course for people   diagnosed with schizophrenia is true?​

a. 

​About one-third     recover from the first episode and do not become psychotic again.

b. 

​Up to one-fourth     will have a serious disorder throughout their lives.

c. 

​About one-half will     develop progressive brain deterioration that continues throughout life.

d. 

​Up to one-third     will go on to develop dementia by their 40s.

Essay

117. Define major depression.​

118. Briefly describe the four major categories of   antidepressant drugs

LEARNING OBJECTIVES:  

KALA.BIOP.16.14.05 –     Describe medical and behavioral treatments for several psychological     disorders.

TOPICS:  

14.2 Mood Disorders

119. What are the key symptoms of autism spectrum   disorders?​

ANSWER:  

DIFFICULTY:  

REFERENCES:  

LEARNING OBJECTIVES:  

TOPICS:  

120. Describe the difference between positive and negative   symptoms of schizophrenia and give some examples of each.​

ANSWER:  

DIFFICULTY:  

REFERENCES:  

LEARNING OBJECTIVES:  

KALA.BIOP.16.14.03 –     Compare the role of genetics in substance abuse, depression, schizophrenia,     and autism.

TOPICS:  

14.3 Schizophrenia

121. Describe the differences between antagonists and   agonists.

LEARNING OBJECTIVES:  

KALA.BIOP.16.14.02 –     Discuss cravings and their role in addiction.

TOPICS:  

14.1 Substance Abuse     and Addiction

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