FINAL EXAM

1

For audit evidence to be compelling to the auditor it must be sufficient and appropriate. Which statement below is not correct regarding the appropriateness of audit evidence?

  • Correct Answer

    The more effective the internal control system, the more assurance it provides the auditor about the reliability of financial reporting by the client.

  • Correct Answer

    An auditor’s opinion, to be economically useful and profitable to the auditing firm needs to be formed within a reasonable time and based on evidence obtained that assures profits for the auditing firm.

  • Correct Answer

    The independent auditor’s direct personal knowledge, obtained through inquiry, observation and inspection, is generally more persuasive than information obtained indirectly.

  • Correct Answer

     Evidence obtained from independent sources outside the entity is generally more reliable than evidence secured solely within the entity

    2

    The final step in the evaluation of the audit results is the decision to:

    • Correct Answer

      project the point estimate.

    • Correct Answer

      determine sampling error and calculate the estimated total population error.

    • Correct Answer

      determine the error in each sample.

    • Correct Answer

      accept the population as fairly stated or to require further action.3

      The word below that best explains the relationship between required sample size and the acceptable risk of incorrect acceptance is:

      • Correct Answer

        inverse.

      • Correct Answer

        proportional.

      • Correct Answer

        direct.

      • Correct Answer

        indeterminate.4

        The introductory paragraph of the standard audit report for a non-public company performs which functions?
        I.    It states the CPA has performed an audit.
        II.    It lists the financial statements being audited.
        III.    It states the financial statements are the responsibility of the auditor.

        • Correct Answer

          I and III

        • Correct Answer

          I, II and III

        • Correct Answer

          I and II

        • Correct Answer

          II and III5

          Master files, spreadsheets, and reports that accumulate material, labor, and overhead as the costs are incurred are:

          • Correct Answer

            finished goods inventory records.

          • Correct Answer

            accounting systems.

          • Correct Answer

            storeroom documents.

          • Correct Answer

            cost accounting records.6

            Which of the following balance-related audit objectives typically is assessed as having high inherent risk for cash?

            • Correct Answer

              Presentation and disclosure

            • Correct Answer

              Cutoff

            • Correct Answer

              Existence

            • Correct Answer

              Detail tie-in7

              In addition to confirming bank balances of your audit client, a bank confirmation would normally contain:

              • Correct Answer

                the client’s credit history as regards to paying back loans.

              • Correct Answer

                the client’s managements bank account information.

              • Correct Answer

                the client’s bank loans with due date, interest rate, and collateral requested.

              • Correct Answer

                the client’s business prospects.8

                A commitment is best described as:

                • Correct Answer

                  an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future that depends on current market conditions.

                • Correct Answer

                  an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future.

                • Correct Answer

                  an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future that depends on company profitability.

                • Correct Answer

                  a potential future obligation to an outside party for an as yet to be determined amount

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Final Exam

1.  (6 points) from Thales annual report:

“At the end of 2002, a group of French manufacturers, including Thales and one of its subsidiaries, collectively received a request for arbitration relating to the execution of old contracts. … In November 2012, the claimant filed a new request for arbitration for a revised amount of €226m. The parties are strongly challenging this claim and at this date it is not possible to evaluate any potential financial risk. Consequently, Thales has not recognised any provision.”

What probability does Thales (a French company) assign to the likelihood of losing money as a result of this claim?  What is the basis for that answer?

 

2. (12 points)  Under IFRS, companies may choose to revalue fixed assets.  If that is a company’s policy, is there any difference between recording downward revaluation and recording an impairment?

 

 

3.  (15 points)  EuroParts uses specialized Machine X to manufacture plastic toy components that are sold to other toy manufacturers.  In the third quarter of 2008, a competitor launched its own range of toy components that are selling at 50% less than EuroParts’ components. EuroParts will find it difficult to match this pricing.

·   The carrying value of Machine X is $35,000

·   The value of Machine X on the second hand market is $12,000 and costs to

sell the asset are expected to amount to $3,000

·   Discounted net cash inflows from Machine X over the remaining useful life

(including disposal proceeds) are $9,700.

What is the correct amount of impairment charge to be recorded in profit and loss under IFRS and US GAAP?

 

4.  (10 points) Are long-term liabilities recorded at cost or fair value.  Explain your answer for IFRS, for US GAAP.

5.  (15 points)  Thurstone Co., a US-based company borrows 1,500,000 British pounds on 1 Jan, Year 1, at an interest rate of 4% to finance the construction of a new office building for its employees in England.  Construction is expected to take six months and cost 1,500,000 pounds.  Thurstone temporarily invest the British pounds borrowed until cash is needed to pay costs.  Interest earned in the first quarter of Year 1 is 5000 pounds.  During the first quarter of Year 1, expenditures of 500,000 pounds are incurred; the weighted average expenditures are 300,000 pounds.  Thurstone will repay the borrowing plus interest on 30 June, Year 1 by converting US dollars into British ponds.  The US dollar/British pound exchange rate was $2.00 on 1 Jan, Year 1, and 2.10 on 31 March, Year 1.  The exchange rate is the result of the difference in interest rates in the US and Great Britain.

Required

Determine the amount of borrowing costs (in US dollars) that Thurstone should include in the cost of the new building at 31 March, Year 1.

 

6.  (15 points)  Beech Corp has three finished products (related to three different product lines) in its ending inventory at 31 December 2012.  The following table gives information about each.

Product

Cost

Replacement cost

Selling price

Normal profit margin

101

130

140

160

20%

202

160

135

140

20%

303

100

80

100

15%

Beech expects to incur selling costs equal to 5 percent of the selling price on each of the products.

Determine the amount at which Beech should report its inventory on the 31 December 2012 balance sheet,

·         Under US GAAP

·         Under IFRS

One year later, Beech still has the three different products in its inventory.  The following table has information for the company’s products on 31 December 2013.

Product

Cost

Replacement cost

Selling price

Normal profit margin

101

130

180

190

20%

202

160

150

160

20%

303

100

100

130

15%

Beech still expects to incur selling costs equal to 5% of the selling price.

Determine the amount at which Beech should report its inventory on the 31 December 2013 balance sheet,

·         Under US GAAP

·         Under IFRS

 

 

 

7. A company acquired its only building on January 1, 2010 at a cost of $5.0 million. The building has a 10‑year life and is being depreciated on a straight-line basis. On December 31, 2010, the net book value of the building was $4.5 million. The company revalued the building when the fair value of the building was $4.75 million on December 31, 2010.  On December 31, 2011, the company sold the building for $4.0 million. Determine what accounts would be afffected and, in table format, show the activity for the years 2010 and 2011. There is no need to show journal entries.  Be sure to specify whether the sale gives a gain or a loss.

 

 

 

Date

Cost

Accumulated depreciation

Net

Surplus account in equity

-OCI

Gain or Loss

Retained earnings

1 January 2010

$5.0

 

5.0

 

 

 

31 December 2010

 

 0.5

4.5

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Ending balance

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

8. (2 points) What is a “contingent asset?”

                A)           There is no such thing, in either IASB standards or U.S. GAAP, as a “contingent asset.”

                B)            This is an asset which has been put up as collateral against a loan.

                C)            This is a possible inflow of resources arising from a future activity.

                D)           It is a probable asset whose existence is yet to be confirmed definitively by a future event.

 

9. (2 points) Rive Rouge Confections Company incurred €5,000,000 to determine if chocolate could be made to resist melting by adding certain inert minerals to the mixture.  According to IAS 38, how should Rive Rouge record this cost?

                A)           It should be capitalized as a Deferred Development Cost.

                B)            It should be treated as a cost of products it currently markets.

                C)            It should be expensed currently.

                                                (It is a research cost.)

                D)           It should be amortized over 20 years.

 

10. (8 points) A “cash generating unit” (CGU) in an IFRS company has recorded an impairment of goodwill.  It presents you, the auditor, with the following information that is part of its analysis.

 

Carrying value of the CGU (includes goodwill):           3 million

Carrying value of that CGU’s goodwill:                            0.3 million

Fair value of CGU                                                                     4.5 million

Recoverable value of CGU:                                                  4.5 million

 

What is the implied value of that CGU’s goodwill (before an impairment, if any)?

 

 

 

 

 

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Final Exam

11PRODUCTION AND OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT

Final Exam

Name:__

 

 

1.  During which phase of a product’s life cycle does low unit cost become a top competitive priority?

a.Introduction

b.Growth

c.Maturity

d.Decline

 

 

 

2.  Steel mills, paint factories and credit card authorization are examples of 

a.Projects

b.Job shop

c.Flow process

d.Continuous flow

 

 

3.  A process map (flow chart) 

a.Is boundary-less

b.Does not include information flow

c.Is used as a baseline

d.Must include a line of customer visibility

 

 

 

4.  A(n) ________________ is a group of ________________ needed to create and deliver an intermediate or final output.

a.Process; value chains

b.Activity; tasks

c.Task; activities

d.Activity; processes

 

 

5.  Which is the correct order of hierarchy?

a.Activity, task, process, value chain

b.Value chain, process, task, activity

c.Process, value chain, activity, task

d.Value chain, process, activity, task

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

6.Explain why the product-process matrix does not transfer well to services.

 

 

 

 

 

 

7.

7.  Discuss both a process map (flow chart) and a process boundary. Why is each important?

 

 

 

 

 

8.  All of the following are valid purposes for layout studies except 

a.Minimize delays in materials handling and customer movement

b.Increase bottlenecks

c.Promote employee morale and customer satisfaction

d.maintain flexibility

 

 

9.   A ____________ layout is an arrangement based on the sequence of operations that are performed during the manufacturing of a good or the delivery of a service.

a.Product

b.Process

c.Group

d.Fixed position

 

 

10.  ____________ is vertical expansion of job duties to give the worker more responsibility.

a.Job enlargement

b.Job rotation

c.Job enrichment

d.Job design

 

 

11.  Considering ergonomics, which of the following does not fit?

a.Improving productivity

b.Group technology

c.Designing equipment and instrumentation

d.Considering physical capability of people

 

 

12.  A ____________ performs entire jobs rather than specialized, assembly line work.

a.Virtual team

b.Self-managed team

c.Natural work team

d.Ergonomic team

 

 

13.  ____________ set their own goals and inspects their own work, often hire their own replacements and prepare their own budgets.

a.Virtual teams

b.Enlarged teams

c.Sociotechnical teams

d.Self-managed teams

 

 

14.Discuss four reasons for conducting a facility-layout study.

 

 

 

 

 

15.  Which of the following is a short-term capacity decision?

a.Expanding the size and number of beds in a hospital

b.Amount of warehouse space to rent for a new promotional item

c.Closing down a distribution center

d.Changing the cooking technology in a chain of fast-food restaurants

 

 

16.  A measure of capacity that generally does not include adjustments for preventive maintenance or unplanned downtime is called 

a.Sustainable capacity

b.Effective capacity

c.Theoretical capacity

d.Safety capacity

 

 

17.  According to the Theory of Constraints, ____________ is the amount of money generated per time period through actual sales. 

a.Throughput

b.Non-Bottleneck (NBN) work activity

c.Non-physical constraint

d.Utilization

 

 

18.  Inventory that has been ordered but not yet received and is in transit is called 

a.Raw materials

b.Pipeline

c.Anticipation

d.Cycle

 

 

19.  Using ABC analysis, continuous monitoring and accurate record keeping relates best to ____________ items.

a.A

b.B

c.C

d.B and C

 

 

20. Which of the following is not a key assumption underlining the classic economic order quantity model?

a.The entire order quantity arrives in the inventory at one time

b.There are only two types of relevant  costs: order/setup and inventory-holding

c.Storage/warehouse capacity is a bottleneck/constraint

d.Allows no stockouts

 

 

21.Define and explain the four (4) different types of inventory costs.

 

 

 

 

 

22.W. Edwards Deming’s success in Japan was his ability to teach quality specialists rather than upper management?  (True or False)

 

 

23.  The Deming philosophy focuses on bringing about improvements in product and service quality by reducing uncertainty and variability in goods and services design and associated processes.

(True or False)

 

 

 

24. The quality system should clearly state the action that should be taken and what should be done with non-conforming items.  (True or False)

 

 

25.  All of the following are components of the GAP model except 

a.The discrepancy between delighting or pleasing customers and total customer service and satisfaction

b.The discrepancy between management’s perceptions of what features constitute a target level of quality and the task of translating these perceptions into executable specifications

c.The discrepancy between quality specifications documented in operating and training manuals and plans and their implementation

d.The difference between the customer’s expectations and perceptions

 

 

 

26.  Which of the following is not considered part of Total Quality?

a.A focus on the customers and stakeholders

b.A process focus

c.Participation and team work

d.Six Sigma

 

 

 

 

27.  All of the following relate to Six Sigma except 

a.Clear financial returns

b.Measures defects per unit

c.Output critical to customers

d.A stretch goal

 

 

28.  Machine down time and down grading costs are examples of which type of quality cost?

a.Prevention

b.Appraisal

c.Internal-failure

d.External-failure

 

 

29.Resources are limited, project managers try to level resource loads by shifting activities between early start dates and late start dates shifted schedules.  (True or False)

 

30.  Which of the following is incorrect regarding time/cost trade-offs?

a.The relationship between time and cost is assumed to be linear

b.Some activities cannot be crashed

c.To minimize cost, managers need not focus on the critical path(s)

d.Managers search for the minimum-cost crash schedule

 

 

 

 

31.  Which statement is true regarding activities not on the critical path?

a.Usually cannot be delayed

b.Have less slack than activities on the critical path

c.Can delay a project if they are highly variable

d.Are used to crash project completion times

 

 

 

32.  Slack does all the following except

a.Provides an indication of the criticality of an activity

b.Allows for flexibility in resource scheduling

c.Requires only a forward pass to calculate Earliest Start (ES) and Earliest Finish (EF)

d.Affects project costs

 

 

33.Discuss the three key factors of the project-planning process.

 

 

 

 

34.Describe the four major steps in the project-planning process.

 

 

 

 

 

 

35.  Explain the purpose of Gantt charts.

 

 

 

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Final Exam

 
 
 

 For this exam I would like you to develop and write  an essay between 600-750 words (may go longer). I would like you to pick a theme from the first 3 assigned chapters and develop that theme across the chapters into a cogent discussion essay. For example, you may choose to discuss the role of the church in Western technology. Or you may choose the role of commerce in advancing science, or medicine, or discoveries, or great men. Pick a topic that interests you. You may use outside course materials in constructing your essay.

Essay should include:

1.  Introduction – An overview of what you are going to discuss, argue, question.   The introdcuction should also suggest your expected conclusions.  This is where the reader (me) can get a sense of what is expected to follow.  You should include how the essay is going to flow.  The introduction can be brief, but it is critical for setting up the body of the essay.

2.  Body – This is where you develop the overview presented in the introduction.  Use specific evidence from text and videos to reference your points.  Be sure to properly cite your evidence in footnotes and/or parenthetic notes.  These citations should also be referenced at the end of the essay in sources.  The recommended style format is MLA (Modern Langauges Association) which you can access online.  The MLS stylesheet will give you examples of how to cite various sources.

3.  Conclusion –  A summary of your essay and closing comments.  This is where you tie the essay together and bring it to a convincing end.

4.  Sources – Sources are not counted in the essay word count.  You should list all and any sources you used in creating the essay, including course text and video.  Please refer to MLA style sheet for proper formatting.  A minimum of 3 sources is required.

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Final Exam

 

      
      
      
      

      
      
      
      

      
      
      
      

      
      
      
      

      
      
      
      

      
      
      
      

      
      
      
      

      
      
      
      

      
      
      
      

      
      
      
      

Page 2

      
      
      
      

      
      
      
      

      
      
      
      

      
      
      
      

      
      
      
      

      

Question 2.

      

Question 3.

      

Question 4.

      

Question 5.

      

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Final Exam

For each of the 5 course objectives, explain in 200-400 words what you learned in this course and how you could apply your learning of this course objective to your personal life or career. Refer to the syllabus to assist you in understanding what material was covered under each objective. Use the attachment to write the asnwers.

 

 4pts each (2pts for content and 2pts for meeting word count of at least 200 words for each objective)

 

 

 

1)    CHANGING DYNAMICS OF ACCOUNTING (to earn full credit meet word count of at least 200 words)

Objectives/Competencies

    • 1.1Identify the five accounting cycles.
    • 1.2Describe the impact of information systems on the accounting profession.
    • 1.3Demonstrate the flow of accounting information through an organization.
    • 1.4Analyze the limitations and risks of using the Internet in business activities.
    • 1.5Differentiate among the various types of information systems (IS). 

 

2)    INFORMATION SYSTEMS INFRASTRUCTURE(to earn full credit meet word count of at least 200 words)

Objectives/Competencies

    • 2.1Identify major hardware components.
    • 2.2Identify internal control procedures for accounting information systems.
    • 2.3Examine accounting software applications. 

 

3)    DATA MANAGEMENT AND INTEGRATION (to earn full credit meet word count of at least 200 words)

Objectives/Competencies

    • 3.1Define terminology used in databases.
    • 3.2Create a tool illustrating the flow of accounting information.
    • 3.3Develop a database using an accounting cycle. 

 

4)    BUSINESS MODELING PROCESSES AND SYSTEM DESIGN(to earn full credit meet word count of at least 200 words)

Objectives/Competencies

    • 4.1Describe the systems development life cycle.
    • 4.2Explain the development of accounting information system requirements 

 

5)    INFORMATION SYSTEMS AND AUDITING(to earn full credit meet word count of at least 200 words)

Objectives/Competencies

    • 5.1Identify methods for auditing information systems.
    • 5.2Examine the impact of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act on internal control.

 

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Final Exam

Daisy Arabella only 

 

QUESTION 1

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Final Exam

I only need those that can guarantee an “A”.

 

QUESTION 1

  1.  

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final exam

Final Exam:  Lesson 15 

  • (200 points) Pick four of the seven topics below and develop a two to three page response.  Each essay must be a minimum of 200 words cited with references.

 

  1. Discuss the unique relationship between the security professional and organizational ethics.
  2. Discuss the implications of the future of social media on HRM.
  3. Choose one or two of the aspects of performance management that frustrate employees, and discuss how management and leadership practices can overcome those frustrations.
  4. Define the terms “climate” and “culture” as they relate to HRM.  Of the two, which is more important and why?
  5. Managers and leaders in DoD must be familiar with the four core security disciplines.  Which do you believe is the most important discipline in the context of HRM and why?
  6. What is the greatest performance appraisal challenge for managers?  Defend your answer.
  7. What is the most important component of human capital management planning, and why?

 

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Final Exam

Test Information

 

Description  
Instructions

There are 10 questions – Each question has a statement. Your task is to write two responses…one to agree with the statement and another to disagree with the statement. It’s not “pick one or the other”. You have to make a separate argument for each side. One paragraph why you would agree, and one paragraph why you would disagree. 

Please note: YOU HAVE TO MAKE A CASE FOR BOTH STANCES REGARDLESS OF YOUR PERSONAL OPINION. Also, you must use concepts from the course/textbook and related articles to backup your writing. Also include citations when appropriate. 

Please differentiate your two responses in separate paragraphs. One paragraph begins with “I agree…” and the other with “I disagree…”

Multiple Attempts Not allowed. This test can only be taken once.
Force Completion This test can be saved and resumed later.
 

   
   
                   
                 
   
 
   
 
   
 
   
     
                                                           
   
 
       
 
                                           
           
Pathp

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Pathp

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10 points       

   
                   
                 
   
 
   
 
   
 
   
     
                                                           
   
 
       
 
                                           
           
Pathp

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10 points       

   
                   
                 
   
 
   
 
   
 
   
     
                                                           
   
 
       
 
                                           
           
Pathp

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Pathp

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Pathp

Words:0

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Final Exam

 

Provide answers to the four Final Exam questions using APA format. Submit your exam on schedule.

This final exam consists of four questions. Please answer them using APA format.

Two to three pages should be sufficient for each question.

  1. In his book, Rewarding Work: How to Restore Participating and Self-Support to Free Enterprise (Harvard University Press, 197), economist Edmund Phelps offers this plan to help the working poor: apply tax credits for “qualified employers” or hire disadvantaged people for “eligible jobs.” Evaluate this plan in terms of market incentives, one of the ten principles of economics, to work and current welfare programs. Is the Phelps’ plan an improvement over current government policies? Discuss.
  2. The availability of investment capital is critical for a market economy to grow. Explain how this investment capital is transformed into fixed capital goods, new technology, and cost reduction using new methods of production. Also, explain how interest rates impact the availability of investment capital.
  3. Your text, on page 629, lists three arguments for trade restrictions. Since economists do not favor trade restrictions, and this is a course in Managerial Economics, make the case as an economist against trade restrictions for these three items. Are there any arguments for trade restrictions that most economists would support? Discuss.
  4. Who was responsible for the global financial crisis of 2007-2009? Free-Market capitalism, government intervention, or a combination of both? Identify the causes of the crisis, the steps the private and public sector took to resolve it, and what leaders should do to keep it from happening again. Remember, banks are profit making firms who supply capital to suppliers of goods and services.

Your paper should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards. Please include citations to support your ideas.

 

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Final Exam

In at least 1000 words typed in proper APA format (including a 12-point font, double spacing, a title page, a reference page, in-text citations, a running header, page numbers, and an abstract page), you will write a review on any psychological disorder (can be an anxiety disorder, a mood disorder, a personality disorder, a somatoform disorder, a dissociative disorder, or even schizophrenia) of your choice.

One friendly piece of advice here is to choose a specific disorder versus a category of disorders. For example, instead of trying to do your essay on all personality disorders, you might choose just one personality disorder, such as avoidant personality disorder. That should make the paper more manageable.

First, you should discuss what the disorder is (general description, types if different types exist, symptoms), and how one gets the disorder (possible causes, risk factors).

Second, you should choose four of the perspectives listed in the textbook–psychodynamic, humanistic, behavioral, cognitive, group, biological–and discuss how a psychologist/doctor from each perspective would treat a patient with your disorder.

Part of this assignment will require you to enter the Grantham library. You should consider contacting the librarian (well before the due date) for help if you do not understand what peer-reviewed sources are or if you do not understand how to use the library functionally at Grantham.

You must include two peer-reviewed sources from an electronic journal within your essay, using at least some information from each of these sources within your writing. These sources should come from the Grantham library. You may use other resources, but at least two of your sources must come from the library and be peer-reviewed sources.

Your essay should be at least 1000 words in length and should be presented in APA format, including a title page, in-text citations, a running header, page numbers, double spacing, and a reference page. Your assignment should use terms/references directly from the chapter, and all extra outside research must be properly cited.

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Final Exam

Need this done in an hour.

 

 

 

1. Discuss the crime prevention through environmental design (CPTED) risk reduction philosophy. What are the major elements of CPTED, and how do they help prevent and prepare for workplace violence events?

Your response must be at least 500 words in length

 

 

2. Describe the requirements of the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (SARA). What was this law designed to do and to which workplaces does it apply? Describe how the requirements of SARA might tie into preparing an employee and workplace against terrorism.

Your response must be at least 500 words in length

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Final Exam

 

These are NOT short answer responses. Use proper essay writing style and fully develop and justify your responses. Content, spelling, and grammar are all evaluated.

 

1.      Describe the progressive discipline process. What are the pros and cons? Cite two offenses that should be handled with immediate discharge versus going through the progressive discipline steps. Would the company be able to defend this in a court of law? Why or why not?

 

The progressive discipline process

 

2. Identify and describe 3 possible rater errors a supervisor may make when going through the performance appraisal process. How can he or she overcome or mitigate these errors?

 

Read the “Dealing with Workplace Bullying” case on page 534-535. If you were an HR professional conducting training, what content and policies regarding bullying might you present to employees and managers? Be specific as to the subjects you would cover, medium you would use, etc.

 

Describe the collective bargaining and grievance processes. What are the HR unit’s responsibilities with regards to grievance management? Describe and discuss.

 

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final exam

QUESTION 1

 

Factorial designs allow researchers to study the effects of more than one independent variable simultaneously. Why is this advantageous? What information can factorial designs yield that nonfactorial designs cannot?

 

QUESTION 2

The authors of your textbook suggest that sampling bias is virtually unavoidable and that it is important to disclose and discuss possible sources of bias in the study report. Do you agree? Explain your position.

 

QUESTION 3

Under what circumstances would a researcher choose a longitudinal study over a cross-sectional study? Give a specific example of a question that could be addressed with a longitudinal study and explain why that developmental design is preferred.

 

QUESTION 4

A fundamental pitfall in qualitative research is to confuse the actual observations with the interpretation of the observations. Why is it important that these two things remain distinctly separate?

 

QUESTION 5

Dr. D is conducting an interview with Amber, who works as a cocktail waitress. Here is an excerpt:
Dr. D: What shift do you typically work?Amber: Night. I come in a around 7:00 p.m. and work until 2:00 a.m.Dr. D: Cocktail waitressing has a bad reputation. How bad is it to work here?Amber: Not so bad. Most of our customers are pretty nice guys. They’re regulars and they don’t drink too much and get out of control. In fact, if one customer is giving me a hard time, another often steps in and helps out.
Dr. D: As the evening progresses, the men give you more and more problems, don’t they? What do you do about that?Amber: I ignore it as long as I can. I get the manager to step in if they don’t straighten up.
Do you notice any problems with the interviewing technique of Dr. D? Describe the problems you see in the excerpts and then explain what Dr. D should do differently.

 

QUESTION 6

In general, research is evaluated based on whether it’s well done, valid and reliable, and useful. Why, then, are open-mindedness and explicitness of assumptions and biases hallmarks of well-done qualitative research?

 

QUESTION 7

Conducting rigorous historical research involves more than reading historical documents, taking notes, and organizing those notes. Explain.

 

QUESTION 8

The study of how ideas developed over time is a type of conceptual or psychological historical research. Identify a key concept in your own discipline and describe in detail the types of primary sources you could use to understand its history, explaining what each source might add to the study.

QUESTION 9

What are the general advantages of conducting a mixed-methods study, rather than two or more different studies, to address a single research question?

 

 

QUESTION 10

 

Why do mixed-methods studies require special consideration of the ethics involved in conducting the study? Explain, using an example to support your claims.

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course-preview

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Final Exam

 

Provide answers to the four Final Exam questions using APA format. Submit your exam on schedule.

This final exam consists of four questions. Please answer them using APA format.

Two to three pages should be sufficient for each question.

  1. In his book, Rewarding Work: How to Restore Participating and Self-Support to Free Enterprise (Harvard University Press, 197), economist Edmund Phelps offers this plan to help the working poor: apply tax credits for “qualified employers” or hire disadvantaged people for “eligible jobs.” Evaluate this plan in terms of market incentives, one of the ten principles of economics, to work and current welfare programs. Is the Phelps’ plan an improvement over current government policies? Discuss.
  2. The availability of investment capital is critical for a market economy to grow. Explain how this investment capital is transformed into fixed capital goods, new technology, and cost reduction using new methods of production. Also, explain how interest rates impact the availability of investment capital.
  3. Your text, on page 629, lists three arguments for trade restrictions. Since economists do not favor trade restrictions, and this is a course in Managerial Economics, make the case as an economist against trade restrictions for these three items. Are there any arguments for trade restrictions that most economists would support? Discuss.
  4. Who was responsible for the global financial crisis of 2007-2009? Free-Market capitalism, government intervention, or a combination of both? Identify the causes of the crisis, the steps the private and public sector took to resolve it, and what leaders should do to keep it from happening again. Remember, banks are profit making firms who supply capital to suppliers of goods and services.

Your paper should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards. Please include citations to support your ideas.

 

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Final Exam

In at least 1000 words typed in proper APA format (including a 12-point font, double spacing, a title page, a reference page, in-text citations, a running header, page numbers, and an abstract page), you will write a review on any psychological disorder (can be an anxiety disorder, a mood disorder, a personality disorder, a somatoform disorder, a dissociative disorder, or even schizophrenia) of your choice.

One friendly piece of advice here is to choose a specific disorder versus a category of disorders. For example, instead of trying to do your essay on all personality disorders, you might choose just one personality disorder, such as avoidant personality disorder. That should make the paper more manageable.

First, you should discuss what the disorder is (general description, types if different types exist, symptoms), and how one gets the disorder (possible causes, risk factors).

Second, you should choose four of the perspectives listed in the textbook–psychodynamic, humanistic, behavioral, cognitive, group, biological–and discuss how a psychologist/doctor from each perspective would treat a patient with your disorder.

Part of this assignment will require you to enter the Grantham library. You should consider contacting the librarian (well before the due date) for help if you do not understand what peer-reviewed sources are or if you do not understand how to use the library functionally at Grantham.

You must include two peer-reviewed sources from an electronic journal within your essay, using at least some information from each of these sources within your writing. These sources should come from the Grantham library. You may use other resources, but at least two of your sources must come from the library and be peer-reviewed sources.

Your essay should be at least 1000 words in length and should be presented in APA format, including a title page, in-text citations, a running header, page numbers, double spacing, and a reference page. Your assignment should use terms/references directly from the chapter, and all extra outside research must be properly cited.

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Final Exam

Need this done in an hour.

 

 

 

1. Discuss the crime prevention through environmental design (CPTED) risk reduction philosophy. What are the major elements of CPTED, and how do they help prevent and prepare for workplace violence events?

Your response must be at least 500 words in length

 

 

2. Describe the requirements of the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (SARA). What was this law designed to do and to which workplaces does it apply? Describe how the requirements of SARA might tie into preparing an employee and workplace against terrorism.

Your response must be at least 500 words in length

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Final Exam

 

These are NOT short answer responses. Use proper essay writing style and fully develop and justify your responses. Content, spelling, and grammar are all evaluated.

 

1.      Describe the progressive discipline process. What are the pros and cons? Cite two offenses that should be handled with immediate discharge versus going through the progressive discipline steps. Would the company be able to defend this in a court of law? Why or why not?

 

The progressive discipline process

 

2. Identify and describe 3 possible rater errors a supervisor may make when going through the performance appraisal process. How can he or she overcome or mitigate these errors?

 

Read the “Dealing with Workplace Bullying” case on page 534-535. If you were an HR professional conducting training, what content and policies regarding bullying might you present to employees and managers? Be specific as to the subjects you would cover, medium you would use, etc.

 

Describe the collective bargaining and grievance processes. What are the HR unit’s responsibilities with regards to grievance management? Describe and discuss.

 

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final exam

QUESTION 1

 

Factorial designs allow researchers to study the effects of more than one independent variable simultaneously. Why is this advantageous? What information can factorial designs yield that nonfactorial designs cannot?

 

QUESTION 2

The authors of your textbook suggest that sampling bias is virtually unavoidable and that it is important to disclose and discuss possible sources of bias in the study report. Do you agree? Explain your position.

 

QUESTION 3

Under what circumstances would a researcher choose a longitudinal study over a cross-sectional study? Give a specific example of a question that could be addressed with a longitudinal study and explain why that developmental design is preferred.

 

QUESTION 4

A fundamental pitfall in qualitative research is to confuse the actual observations with the interpretation of the observations. Why is it important that these two things remain distinctly separate?

 

QUESTION 5

Dr. D is conducting an interview with Amber, who works as a cocktail waitress. Here is an excerpt:
Dr. D: What shift do you typically work?Amber: Night. I come in a around 7:00 p.m. and work until 2:00 a.m.Dr. D: Cocktail waitressing has a bad reputation. How bad is it to work here?Amber: Not so bad. Most of our customers are pretty nice guys. They’re regulars and they don’t drink too much and get out of control. In fact, if one customer is giving me a hard time, another often steps in and helps out.
Dr. D: As the evening progresses, the men give you more and more problems, don’t they? What do you do about that?Amber: I ignore it as long as I can. I get the manager to step in if they don’t straighten up.
Do you notice any problems with the interviewing technique of Dr. D? Describe the problems you see in the excerpts and then explain what Dr. D should do differently.

 

QUESTION 6

In general, research is evaluated based on whether it’s well done, valid and reliable, and useful. Why, then, are open-mindedness and explicitness of assumptions and biases hallmarks of well-done qualitative research?

 

QUESTION 7

Conducting rigorous historical research involves more than reading historical documents, taking notes, and organizing those notes. Explain.

 

QUESTION 8

The study of how ideas developed over time is a type of conceptual or psychological historical research. Identify a key concept in your own discipline and describe in detail the types of primary sources you could use to understand its history, explaining what each source might add to the study.

QUESTION 9

What are the general advantages of conducting a mixed-methods study, rather than two or more different studies, to address a single research question?

 

 

QUESTION 10

 

Why do mixed-methods studies require special consideration of the ethics involved in conducting the study? Explain, using an example to support your claims.

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FINAL EXAM

Question

1. One of the results of the 2005 Hurricanes Katrina and Rita in Louisiana has been an increase in the influx of Spanish-speaking workers. Incorporating cultural and linguistic competence to meet the health needs of this population would include

a. having health care professional staff from different Spanish-speaking countries at health care facilities.

b. ensuring health services are in varying locations.

c. ensuring that all signage is posted completely in Spanish.

d. having all health care workers speak Spanish.

2. A mechanism health care organizations need to incorporate into their strategic plan for culturally and linguistically appropriate services includes

a. goals, policies, accountability and oversight mechanisms addressing these  services.

b. partnerships with community agencies.

c. mechanisms for client service reimbursement.

d. staff con? ict resolution policies.

3. Kwanzaa was created in the 1960s to raise awareness and pride for the African- American community. While its tenets can be applied to all people, this particular celebration was developed to celebrate a specific

a. social class.

b. religion.

c. ethnicity.

d. cultural group.

4. Parish Nursing is an aspect of nursing that is becoming more utilized. One of the bases of parish nursing is the premise that

a. it is easier to provide health services to a de? ned religious community.

b. a faith community has an impact on the health of its members.

c. illness is prevented through parish nursing.

d. members of a religion follow de? ned health practices.

5. After the Vietnam War, many Vietnamese immigrated to the United States and settled in areas where they could maintain many of the cultural customs and traditions of Vietnam, including festivals, Saturday schools to educate the children in the Vietnamese language and planting communal gardens. This is an example of

a. heritage consistency.

b. acculturation.

c. socialization.

d. religious preference.

6. A seminal event in the boomer generation that can still elicit comment today is the question

a. ”How did the Challenger tragedy affect you?”

b. ”Where were you when John F. Kennedy was shot?”

c. ”Do you remember Pearl Harbor?”

d. ”What were you doing on September 11, 2001?”

7. A complaint of the boomer generation about the following generations regards work ethic. The “nester” generation born between 1979 and 1984 is more likely to embrace an ethic

a. of employer loyalty.

b. seeking to fit their lifestyle.

c. seeking maximum financial gain.

d. loyal to one’s skills in the marketplace.

8. The best outcome for health care facilities incorporating cultural care into their practices is

a. increased numbers of clients seeking care at these facilities.

b. improved health outcomes for the clients at these facilities.

c. better health care provided by the facility’s staff.

d. increased reimbursement by insurance companies for provided health services.

9. An important consideration when making a home health visit to a client is to:

a. give a general idea of when the visit will be made.

b. bring a gift to the client’s home on the initial visit.

c. just show up at the client’s home.

d. inform the client the approximate time the visit will be made.

10. Certain cultures place emphasis on eating speci? c foods during pregnancy and after childbirth to ensure a healthy mother and infant. This cultural phenomena is an example of

a. time orientation.

b. environmental control.

c. biological variation.

d. social organization.

11. Touch is an important component of nursing, but using it without understanding the client’s cultural background can be a violation of their

a. social organization.

b. environmental control.

c. space and territoriality.

d. time orientation.

12. Before doing any teaching it is important the client understands what is being taught. The most effective method to determine if the client understands any health teaching is by

a. ask the client if they understand what was said in the teaching.

b. speaking slowly and carefully to the client.

c. having the client repeat back what was said in his/her own words.

d. interpreting the client’s facial gestures.

13. Native Americans have a higher susceptibility to diabetes than other population groups within the United States. This is considered a(n)

a. biological variation.

b. component of heritage consistency.

c. social organization pattern.

d. environmental control.

14. While the Census Bureau has placed race as a sociopolitical construct, placing oneself into a racial category can still present a challenge. Those who consider themselves “Creole” would be more likely to place themselves into the category labeled

a. White.

b. Asian.

c. Black or African American.

d. Hispanic or Latino.

15. While shifts in the population profile are occurring, what is an important consideration to address in health care?

a. More physicians need to be trained to deliver health care.

b. Cultural health needs of varying groups must be considered.

c. Health care providers need to be younger to care for an aging population.

d. Health care needs to be streamlined for consistent care delivery.6

16. With the percentage of the 65+ population greatest among White non-Hispanics in the 2000 Census, health planning needs would indicate

a. there is no need to increase manufacture of childhood immunizations.

b. cultural accommodations for other minority groups can be decreased.

c. planning needs for other segments of the population can be revised downwards.

d. this population will have greater demands on the health care system as they age.

17. Twelve percent of the population in 2000 was age 65 or over. Long-term implications for health for this group include

a. developing systems to provide health care only to those older citizens who remain healthy.

b. providing health care that is focused on gerontological needs.

c. providing health insurance for all age groups.

d. developing medications to prolong life at any cost.

18. A hurdle immigrants face coming to a new country is

a. rejecting their old customs in favor of new customs.

b. having their children learn the customs of the new country.

c. finding their own cultural group in the new country.

d. learning a new way of life that differs from their former way of life.

19. In 1970, the highest percentage of foreign-born legal permanent residents becoming citizens came from Europe. What is true today? The majority of foreign-born legal permanent residents are from

a. Asia.

b. Mexico, China, and the Philippines.

c. Europe.

d. South America.

20. Many people who come to the United States to live seek to get a “green card.” The green card

a. confers automatic U.S. citizenship.

b. legally restricts the holder from becoming a citizen.

c. defines the person as being in the country unlawfully.

d. allows the person legal permanent residency.

21. When seeking permanent U.S. citizenship, legal permanent residents take a naturalization exam that questions them on

a. knowing the Pledge of Allegiance.

b. being able to recite or sing the national anthem.

c. elements of the U.S. government.

d. the Congressional district they live in.

22. Among the very real concerns for all residents of the United States, citizens and legal permanent residents, is the rise in undocumented people entering the country. What impact is this having on health care?

a. Increased numbers of undocumented people are straining health care resources.

b. The rise in undocumented people is contributing to the rise in exotic and rare diseases in the country.

c. There is a concern that undocumented people will lead to bioterrorist attacks.

d. Health insurance is being given to all people in the country ensuring universal coverage.

23. One recognized deterrent to poverty is

a. the presence of two parents in a family structure.

b. not needing to have housing assistance.

c. not needing to utilize food stamps.

d. living in a household of a male income earner.

24. While income is not a restrictor for engaging in health-promoting behaviors, higher income improves them through

a. living in better housing.

b. membership in health clubs in suburban areas.

c. increasing opportunities through nutrition and access to facilities.

d. access to better jobs.

25. Many people and groups have provided definitions of health, but the most widely used definition is that from

a. Nightingale.

b. Rogers.

c. Murray and Zenter.

d. WHO (World Health Organization

26. As people progress through a health profession education program, definitions of health become

a. easier to explain to others.

b. aligned with the client seeking care.

c. more abstract and technical.

d. well articulated and understandable.

27. In attempting to define health, what can occur?

a. Listing categories of health will enable understanding of health.

b. Ambiguity is resolved when health definitions are discussed.

c. Terms and meanings can be challenged by others.

d. A full acceptance can be achieved by all parties.

28. Health status and determinants are used to

a. account for health care expenditures.

b. enforce legislation pertaining to health.

c. determine federal dietary guidelines.

d. measure the health of a nation.

29. Healthy People 2010 represents

a. health policies providing monetary incentives to states who reach the benchmark goals by 2010.

b. a plan to improve the health of everyone in the United States in the ? rst decade of this century.

c. mandated legislation that will result in a healthier population by 2010.

d. a monitoring system evaluating the health of all citizens.

30. As with the many variant definitions of health, illness also has many meanings. Illness and the sick role assigned to it are legitimized by

a. the insurance company that pays for the illness treatment.

b. the person having the illness.

c. the health care profession that diagnoses the illness.

d. society’s view of the illness.

31. Among the sick role components is the

a. mandate of appearing ill and suffering from the illness.

b. necessity of taking medications and staying in bed.

c. exemption from performance of certain normal social obligations.

d. refusal to look to other sources of health care treatments beyond those prescribed.

32. During the stage of patient status, it is expected that

a. symptoms are being experienced, leading to a diagnosis.

b. the patient do all they can do to recover from their illness.

c. the illness is now socially recognized and identified.

d. the person shifts into the role as it is determined by society.

33. Assuming the sick role according to Suchman means the person

a. is aware that something is wrong and responds emotionally.

b. seeks scientific confirrmation that something is wrong.

c. seeks help and shares the problem with family and friends.

d. goes under the control of a physician who plans a treatment of care.

34. A person who has cancer may have followed this illness trajectory:

a. presenting symptoms, followed by treatment and recovery.

b. acute illness, unstable status, deterioration, and recovery.

c. diagnosis, treatment, unstable status, death.

d. presenting symptoms, followed by diagnosis and treatment.

35. When Suchman divides the illness experience into its various stages, the medical care contact stage implies the person is

a. cognitively and physically aware that something is wrong.

b. under medical control and following a prescribed treatment protocol.

c. seeking scientific c rather than lay diagnosis in order to interpret what it all means.

d. seeking help and information from family and friends. 10

36. While HEALTH is considered a balance of the person, ILLNESS would be considered

a. the imbalance of one’s being in and outside the world.

b. actual symptomatology physically manifested.

c. part of the human condition that all must experience.

d. the absence of elements that contribute to health.

37. While complementary alternative medical (CAM) treatments are used by people of all backgrounds, recent research indicates CAM use is greater by

a. men.

b. those who have never been hospitalized.

c. people with rudimentary education.

d. women.

38. Alternative medical traditions are considered

a. an essential component of a cultural heritage medical tradition.

b. for use in concert with other aspects of health care.

c. out of the realm of a person’s cultural heritage medical tradition.

d. traditional methods of health care.

39. The evil eye is defined differently by different populations. Evil is thought to be cast in the Philippines through the

a. mouth or eye.

b. eye or touch.

c. foot.

d. breath.

40. The saying, “An apple a day keeps the doctor away, an onion a day keeps everyone away,” is thought to protect HEALTH by

a. recognizing the special antibiotic properties contained within onions.

b. advertising that onions have special healing abilities.

c. protecting the person from coming in contact with those who might be ill.

d. affirming the belief in the power of onions to prevent disease.

41. Religion has an important role in HEALTH, and ILLNESS can be considered

a. violating dietary practices.

b. failure to wear special amulets to ward it off.

c. a necessary part of religious culture.

d. punishment for breaking a religious code.

42. Eucalyptus is a folk herbal remedy that has applications today. It is used for

a. nasal congestion and sore throat.

b. infant colic.

c. toothache pain.

d. fever.

43. Allopathic medicine terms alternative treatments as complementary or alternative. An alternative therapy for rehabilitation might include ________ as treatment.

a. macrobiotics

b. Santeria

c. Voodoo

d. biofeedback

44. The difference between complementary and alternative medicine is that complementary medicine

a. can be used together with allopathic medicine.

b. is never used with allopathic medicine.

c. lessens a patient’s discomfort with allopathic treatments.

d. replaces allopathic medicine as a primary form of treatment.

45. A reason why people seek alternative care treatments is

a. allopathic treatments may cause adverse effects that a person can’t tolerate.

b. training for alternative care practitioners is closely regulated and licensed.

c. insurance reimburses alternative care treatments at the same rate or better than allopathic treatments.

d. it has a better empirical basis than do allopathic treatments.

46. Many people of Catholic faith pray to ________ for the grace of a happy death.

a. St. Teresa of Avila

b. St. John of God

c. St. Roch

d. St. Joseph

47. While shrines that attract pilgrims can be religious or secular in nature, an essential component to all of them is the

a. feeling of peace and serenity that is conducive to healing.

b. location of the shrine.

c. presence of water so pilgrims can take samples home.

d. numbers of people who are attracted to that site.

48. Lourdes, France, is the site of a revered Roman Catholic shrine. Many people with illnesses visit the shrine with the hope of

a. becoming more prosperous.

b. gaining a better job.

c. receiving a cure through a miracle.

d. being able to live a long life.

49. Historically, early forms of HEALING for illness were equated with

a. performing set rituals to prevent illness.

b. finding the person causing the illness.

c. sacrificial offerings.

d. removing the evil causing the illness.

50. Among alternative treatment modalities utilized during an illness may be the

a. consultation of a healer outside the medical establishment.

b. strict adherence to the prescribed medical regimen.

c. willingness to seek a second medical opinion.

d. refusal to allow any medical treatment to be performed.

51. A potential explanation for healers being used in addition to or instead of traditional medical personnel is their

a. unique language that is characteristic of their calling.

b. exclusive dialogue with the person who is ill.

c. formal relationship with the client.

d. willingness to be available at any time.

52. An illness of the spirit is treated through repentance and is considered

a. physical healing.

b. spiritual healing.

c. inner healing.

d. deliverance.

53. The six-week postpartum check that women have after having a baby closely matches the crucial ________ day practice of ancient times.

a. seventh

b. fortieth

c. third

d. tenth

54. Baptism dates for children have significance within various religions. Water is the common element in baptism as water signifies

a. protecting the child from illness.

b. cleansing the child either from evil or other maladies.

c. the relation of the child to God.

d. dedication of the child to a family group.

55. Wearing white clothes in the Buddhist tradition indicates

a. mourning the death of a relative.

b. recognition of a religious holiday.

c. joy for the birth of an infant.

d. celebration for a marriage.

56. The decline in the use of patent medicine utilization in the United States began with

a. the passage of the Food and Drug Act.

b. increased popularity of over-the-counter medicines.

c. the rise in alternative health care practitioners.

d. Medicare reimbursement for prescription medications.

57. An important health protection practice among Black American Baptists is

a. drinking blackstrap molasses.

b. eating fresh lemons.

c. wearing camphor around the neck in the winter.

d. taking a daily shot of whiskey. 

58. Chicken soup is considered a universal HEALTH restoration intervention in which tradition?

a. French

b. Pacific Islander

c. Eastern European Jewish

d. Italian

59. As a HEALTH maintenance practice, the use of cod liver oil is advocated by those of the

a. German Catholic tradition.

b. Italian Catholic tradition.

c. Iranian (U.S.) Islamic tradition.

d. English Episcopal tradition.

60. A HEALTH protection practice among Irish-American Catholics is drinking

a. senna tea.

b. yeast.

c. hot peppermint tea.

d. wine daily.

61. Fr. John’s medicine is suggested as a HEALTH protection practice from November to May for

a. English American Episcopalians.

b. Canadian Catholics.

c. Native American Baptists.

d. Italian American Catholics.

62. Among the HEALTH restoration practices for menstrual cramps for Irish American Catholics is

a. applying Vicks on the abdomen.

b. drinking cod liver oil in orange juice.

c. applying warm oil to the stomach.

d. drinking hot milk sprinkled with ginger.

63. Activities for HEALTH maintenance for Swedish-American Protestants include

a. walking distances on a regular basis.

b. dressing appropriately for the weather.

c. going to a physician twice a year whether needed or not.

d. starting each day with prayer.

64. While dressing properly for season and weather is an important HEALTH protection practice for Iranian-American Moslems, it is also important to

a. keep onions under the bed to keep nasal passages clear.

b. eat sorghum molasses.

c. keep feet from getting wet in the rain.

d. prevent evil spirits by not looking at a mirror at night.

65. A constant for any culture is the

a. ability for it to change quickly to adjust to new challenges.

b. requirement that all members of the culture act the same.

c. socialization into its traditions, language and practices.

d. necessity for its members to be homogenous in all their decisions.

66. Socialization into the health care culture includes an assumption that

a. effective treatment can only be done by educated and licensed professionals.

b. the more technological the intervention, the greater bene? t it yields.

c. interventions for health events must follow a prescribed protocol.

d. alternative complementary treatments have validity.

67. Contemporary per capita U.S. health care expenditures are expected to

a. increase as part of the overall gross domestic product.

b. decrease as health care becomes available for all citizens.

c. match those of other Western countries.

d. have the United States achieve the highest health status in the world.

68. Specified government efforts for health insurance have resulted in

a. decreasing the amount that Medicare covers for prescription medications.

b. decreasing the percentage of uninsured children under age 18.

c. increasing coverage for prenatal and well-baby care.

d. increasing the percentage of uninsured children under age 18.

69. Technology and scientific advances in health care have resulted in more conditions being treated than in previous decades. The most expensive costs for care are for which conditions?

a. Cardiac disease

b. Conditions resulting in transplantation

c. Diabetes care

d. Pulmonary disease

70. In the early part of the twentieth century, health care efforts focused on controlling infectious diseases and improving

a. maternal and child health.

b. the requirements of the medical profession.

c. chronic diseases.

d. health care costs.

71. The United State relies heavily on guest worker/migrant labor for its agriculture industry. Health care can be offered for this population but faces a potential barrier of

a. language.

b. access.

c. racism.

d. homelessness.

72. What differentiates CULTURALCARE from modern medical care in philosophy is that

a. sufficient money, technology and science are used to cure or remedy.

b. premature death must be avoided.

c. holistic care is predicated on cultural health traditions and needs.

d. disease and injury are avoided through health promotion and maintenance.

73. HEALTH for American Indians has a basis in the

a. curing of those conditions that affect the spirit.

b. respecting of others’ beliefs in healing traditions.

c. harmony between nature and the ability to survive.

d. optimism that life creates positive forces.

74. Evil spirits are associated with illness by the

a. Sioux.

b. Cherokee.

c. Passamaquoddy.

d. Hopi. 

75. In determining the cause for illness, medicine men and women look for the

a. dietary practices of the person being seen.

b. past medical history as a determinant.

c. spiritual cause of the problem of the person seen.

d. physical symptoms displayed.

76. Use of sand paintings as diagnosis in the Navajo tradition helps to

a. provide an atmosphere of calming for the medicine man.

b. determine cause and treatment of the illness.

c. ensure that appropriate payment is made by the family.

d. create symbolic representations of the client and family.

77. A sequela related to alcohol abuse in American Indians is the rise in

a. malnourishment among children.

b. breast cancer rates.

c. domestic violence against women.

d. unintentional injuries.

78. The provision of health services through the Indian Health Service means

a. having one master health guideline blueprint for consistency of care.

b. partnering and assisting tribes in planning the best delivery of care.

c. allotting health resources based on population numbers.

d. following prescribed federal guidelines and procedures.

79. Comparing household income levels of $150,000 or more within the Asian subpopulations, the population that has the higher income level is

a. Chinese.

b. Filipino.

c. Indian.

d. Indonesian. 

80. The initial impetus for Asian immigration to the United States, specifically with the Chinese population, resulted from the

a. favorable immigration status for the Chinese.

b. high unemployment rates in China.

c. need for cheap labor building railroads in the nineteenth century.

d. demand for menial service jobs.

81. A second-class physician in Chinese medicine:

a. pays the patient’s family if the patient dies.

b. has to wait for patients to become ill before treating them.

c. consults Taoist writings for diagnosis and prescription.

d. receives payment only if the patient is cured.

82. The health and disease beliefs in Ayurveda teach that

a. humans are distinct beings within the universe.

b. disease arises when a person is out of harmony with the universe.

c. at birth, people are not in balance and their lives are spent getting into balance with the universe.

d. living and nonliving things have minor connections with one another.

83. Feeling the pulse is important for a Chinese physician because it

a. can help refine a diagnosis.

b. is only felt on the wrist.

c. indicates a specific treatment.

d. is considered the storehouse of the blood.

84. In acupuncture, needles are inserted at predetermined points called meridians because

a. puncturing the meridians helps to restore yin and yang balance.

b. the best anesthetic response is done through meridian puncture.

c. meridians represent specific yin and yang points.

d. only specific needles can puncture the meridians.

85. While Blacks are represented in every socio-economic group, the percentage of those living in poverty in 2005 was approximately

a. thirty percent.

b. twenty percent.

c. fifty percent.

d. twenty-five percent. 

86. Speaking a language other than English at home is highest among immigrants from

a. Nigeria.

b. Somalia.

c. Sudan.

d. Niger.

87. A diabetic Muslim may refuse insulin

a. because it implies the person has not led a holy life.

b. because any injectable medication is forbidden.

c. during Ramadan.

d. if it has a pork base.

88. The leading authority figure within the Black familial structure is the

a. oldest adult child.

b. female.

c. male.

d. minister.

89. When a Black person is being examined, skin pallor can be recognized by

a. palpation.

b. checking the sclera.

c. the absence of underlying red tones.

d. slow blood return.

90. Scars that form at a wound site growing beyond the normal boundaries of the wound are

a. melasma.

b. pseudofolliculitis.

c. keloids.

d. a pigmentary disorder.

91. Educational comparisons of high school graduation and college attendance between Hispanics and non-Hispanic whites indicate

a. Hispanics have a lower rate of graduation and attendance than their

non-Hispanic counterparts.

b. similar percentages of attendance between both groups.

c. more Hispanics attend college than their non-Hispanic counterparts.

d. a higher proportion of non-Hispanic whites fail to complete high school.

92. The largest Hispanic group in the United States comes from Mexico. Which is a true statement reflecting this population?

a. Employment levels are above the national average.

b. Employment in professional areas is stagnant.

c. Migrant farm work is the predominant employment.

d. Most live in urban areas.

93. Visiting a curandero(a) implies a person is seeking

a. holistic care encompassing social, physical, and psychological purposes.

b. care not offered by the medical establishment.

c. care for spiritual distress.

d. specialized herbal preparations not used by the medical establishment.

94. Teas used to treat mental illnesses in the Hispanic population are herbs common in the United States. Yerba buena is an herb used to treat nervousness. Its English name is

a. spearmint.

b. basil.

c. orange leaves.

d. chamomile.

95. The percentage of live births to women receiving third-trimester or no prenatal care is higher for Hispanics than the general population. This would imply that

a. more prenatal services are needed for the general population.

b. some prenatal care is better than no prenatal care.

c. Hispanics possibly have better self-care prenatal practices than the general population.

d. live birth rates would be comparable if all women received appropriate prenatal care.

96. In examining the median age of population groups, the oldest group is

a. African Americans.

b. Hispanics.

c. Whites.

d. Native Americans.

97. While German Americans believe in the germ theory of infection, another potential cause of ILLNESS can be

a. stress-related occurrences.

b. envy by others toward that person.

c. a voodoo curse.

d. unholy actions done in life.

98. Treating a cough in the German tradition may include

a. eating chicken soup.

b. putting wet warm compresses on the chest.

c. drinking lemon juice and whiskey.

d. rubbing goose grease on the chest.

99. To treat a cough, a traditional Polish remedy is

a. taking garlic oil.

b. a mustard plaster on the chest.

c. drinking hot lemonade with whiskey.

d. goose grease rubbed on the throat.

100. When compared to all races, the White population has a higher

a. percentage of low birth-weight infants.

b. percentage of women receiving prenatal care.

c. infant mortality rate.

d. crude birth rate.

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